Hello there,
The results given by a USRBDX scoring are already normalized. In the case of a double differential distribution, as you pointed out, the results are given per unit of solid angle, and per unit of energy. Then you say " Taking the last step should be normalizing against the cm^-2 part". I don't get why you want to do that. The units of fluence are the inverse of a surface so you shouldn't get rid of it. It's like saying you measure the distance between the earth and the sun and then want to get rid of the "m" unit.
Why would you want to multiply your fluence ? What is the value you are looking for ?
If we come back to one of the definitions of fluence that was linked by Mario in his answer to your previous query, we can see this sentence
"In dosimetric calculations, fluence is frequently expressed in terms of the lengths of the particle trajectories. It can be shown that the fluence, Phi, is given by
Phi = dl/dV,
where dl is the sum of the particle trajectory lengths in the volume dV".
Without knowing what you really want to obtain, I can only answer that you don't need any further normalization.
Hope this helps
Philippe
-----Original Message-----
From: owner-fluka-discuss_at_mi.infn.it [mailto:owner-fluka-discuss_at_mi.infn.it] On Behalf Of mjm_at_jlab.org
Sent: 15 June 2016 18:42
To: fluka-discuss_at_fluka.org
Subject: [fluka-discuss]: Normalizing fluence from USRBDX
Hello! Graduate student here trying to learn Fluka/Flair. I think I have a handle on the basics, and how to get Flair to plot what I want, but the one last hurdle I seem to have is how to turn fluence data into just particle count data.
So reading the USRBDX entry on the online manual, I see that fluence/current data should be normalized by the width of the energy bin, and 2*pi (for one-way scoring). Taking the last step should be normalizing against the cm^-2 part, to go from fluence/current to just the number of particles detected. But I've been seeing somewhat conflicting information there.
Does the cm^-2 represent the area of the boundary between the two regions that particles are travelling to/from? Or does it represent their tracklength (normalized by cos(theta) in the case of fluence) through an infinitesimally thick volume between the regions? In the case of the former, it should be fairly trivial to normalize, just multiply by the area. But if it's the latter - tracklength density - how exactly would you normalize that?
I'm sorry if this seems like an obvious/trivial question, I've just been trying to figure this out for a couple weeks now, and am starting to get frustrated. Thanks in advance for any help!
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Received on Thu Jun 16 2016 - 13:03:12 CEST